I am glad to see continued interaction over the translation issues in Psalm 68 at BBB. The issue of who receives what from whom when is a small part of the discussion. Does God receive or give gifts? I was asked if I was making a theoretical statement about Christian translation.
I have a hard time following long comment strings so I thought I had better try and clarify some of my own bias in translation. Here is the interaction:
Bob: God receives gifts in response to having given them - so the reversal of the citation is not problematic.
J.K.Gayle: Are you making a theoretical statement about Christian translation of the Scriptures?
I don't think I have a position on 'Christian' translation at all. I try not to use such adjectives. If I have a theory of translation, it is pattern dependent: we must observe the repeating patterns and see if we can discern the contained and the containing. In the case of the psalms, there are several observable patterns. Finding the significant ones is still difficult.
Now to come to this particular question: As Suzanne points out, in Psalm 68 in this passage, God seems to be receiving gifts. This might mean that the armies were successful and there are captives in Jerusalem which are being received. I pointed out before that it is surprising that even the rebellious are being received. Is this a shame to them or a gift to them?
`ALithA LàMAROm ShAbithA ShEbi
עָלִיתָ לַמָּרוֹם שָׁבִיתָ שֶּׁבִי
you are gone up on high captives you have captured
LAQàXTA màTAnOth BA)ADAm
לָקַחְתָּ מַתָּנוֹת בָּאָדָם
you have received gifts of humanity
A few questions: what does the preposition and article BA mean? 'in the' (in the human) or 'of' or 'for' or 'when'? These Hebrew prepositions are difficult for non-natives to appreciate. So I need to look for clues in other references to gift in the poem: verses 30, 32, 33 and verses 4-5 - God receives praise and song - according to Psalm 50, these glorify God and so may be deemed gifts. There is further evidence of unity in the poem: the three mentions of the rider (verses 5, 18, 34). Note how these are bound to the sections we are already considering.
Briefly, the overall structure seems something like this:
Outer section: theophany, righteous rejoice, sing - chariot (the holy), theophany, blessing
Middle section: announcement, retreat, booty, God's hill - chariot (the holy), [passage under consideration], blessing, salvation and its cost (wound - see psalm 110), procession
Outer section: praise of Israel, praise of Gentiles, chariot (the holy), giving and gift summary, blessing
In this case, Psalm 68, we are still in the middle of understanding the whole. There seems to be a whole and this verse is near its centre. Was there a sudden freeing of a threat to the people, and the poet remembered the passage in Judges, and created this poem of praise as an elaboration of the song of Deborah and Barak?
See a prosodic image here
Note how the first section is bound together by the word 'presence' and the last section by the word 'strength'. I don't think I have marked quite enough connections in the word structure yet. Holiness and the chariot are in all three sections. Singing and praise - extending beyond Israel - form an outer circle as parts of sections 1 and 3. So in section 2 in the middle - what does the gift giving signify - by whom and to whom? Is the KJV justified in its use of 'for'?
How can God receive even the rebellious without the cost of redemption? If God receives someone, is that not gift in itself? If God receives a gift in a human, or a human as gift, is this a reflection of the gift of ourselves to God through the Spirit? If I were a first century reader, I would be inclined as I am now to read the psalm this way after the experience of the Spirit as groaning in us who believe, or as water abundant in our earth. This is in itself both gift from God and gift to God through his Son.
I think I would render it as:
you have received gifts in the human,
even the rebellious in the tent of Yah, God.
And I would hope people could see the cost to God of receiving such a gift and in doing so would glorify God in music and song. Then if I were citing this psalm to a first century Diaspora community, I would note how the ultimate gift of the Son resulted in the disbursement of the Principal sum (not a down payment) of the Spirit to those with whom God is pleased.
Wednesday, October 31, 2007
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2 comments:
Thanks, Bob, for considering my question and for clarifying.
I asked: "Are you making a theoretical statement about Christian translation of the Scriptures?"
And you answer (in part): "I don't think I have a position on 'Christian' translation at all. I try not to use such adjectives. If I have a theory of translation, it is pattern dependent"
Bob, I don't like the use of such adjectives myself. ("Christian music" and "Christian professor" and "Christian novel" and "Christian airplane" -- ugh!!) I see what a pickle it makes in such a question as mine. Apologies.
What I'd hoped to ask was how you allow God into the translating. (See my faulty assumption?) I misread what you wrote as your bringing God into Suzanne's question on the "citation of the Hebrew scriptures in the Christian scriptures is found in Psalm 68:19." You said "God receives gifts in response to having given them - so the reversal of the citation is not problematic."
I was keying in on that last bit, "the reversal of the citation." I mistakenly thought you were saying that God somehow has passive agency, in the reversal, and THUS, it "is not problematic." God acts in translation with people (with a sovereign hand overriding theirs). From your clear analysis here, it's obvious you are focusing on what the writers and translators of the text show God doing (remarkable patterns of God's receiving and giving gifts!!).
But, you here at your blog, I'm puzzled again. You ask: "Was there a sudden freeing of a threat to the people, and the poet remembered the passage in Judges, and created this poem of praise as an elaboration of the song of Deborah and Barak?" And you say: "If I were a first century reader, I would be inclined as I am now to read the psalm this way after..."
God, in the poet's remembering and creating and elaborating, and God, in the readers' after-the-fact "readings" is co-operating. If not seizing agency, he's none the less co-opting the poet's and the readers' choices.
Though Richard Rhodes seems to believe that I am, I am not interested in a sovereignty of God debate. I really want to understand how you (and he maybe differently from you) can figure God into "the reversal of the citation." You won't allow it to be "problematic" (and Richard rather pointedly points out that, with God as agent in translation -- for it's fully inspired original writing and translation -- we must never call the re-translation within the inspired canon a "mistake.") You (and Richard) seem to make God Midas (although I get punished for just trying to go along, and simply to concede that even evil God makes good).
So back to your theory. I see the work with patterns (in the text). Do you believe God had agency with translators (even with their reversals) AS he was inspiring the scriptures? If so, do you believe God has any agency with your translating the scriptures now? As you see the patterns and transpose them into the wonderful prosodic images, is he inspiring his scriptures still in that? (And if Richard wouldn't talk at me, I'd ask him if God allows now allows translators mistakes with his inspiration of scriptures).
One more thing: I think Aristotle has no Christian translation theory. But I do think we translators get theory and practice in translation from Jesus. Would you agree?
Kurk,
I didn't think that I was saying anything about whether you were interested in the question of the sovereignty of God or not. I certainly fully believe that God turns bad stuff to the good. I just think that Scripture is more under God's control. As I said over on BBB, I didn't think it was punishing anyone to say that there is a category clash. Sorry if you felt put down. I was more focused on the generally unnoticed differences in categorization. I worry when we jump to theologizing too soon. (Also, to my way of thinking, a problem with Bob's approach to the Ephesians quote of Psalm 68.)
As for Bob's approach to translation, I do this kind analysis all the time. It's characteristic of poetry that it's dense and has more of these patterns. But I'd also do a lot more first order analysis.
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